Tuesday, May 31, 2011

ctet science MCQ


1. Which one of the following constitutes the two best reasons for distinguishing the living from
the non living?
(a) Growth and locomotion
(b) Irritability and locomotion
(c) Respiration and excretion
(d) Reproduction and locomotion
C
2.The largest living bird is
(a)duck
(b’) dodo
(c)ostrich
(d) peacock
C
3. Which of the following are the only mammals that possess nucleated red blood corpuscles?
I.Camel
2.Llama
3.Man
4.Dog
a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c )3 and 4
(d)l and4
A
4 When compared to the mammals, birds are less sensitive to temporary deprivation of water, be
cause (1.A.S.1990)
(a) urea excretion in mammals entails a greater loss of water than that in birds.
(A’) the water requirement per unit weight is less in birds than in mamtnals.
(c) absorption of water from the gut is more efficient in birds than in mammals.
(d) None of these
B
5. Birds get thrust (forward motion) and lift (upward motion) from
(a) air sacs .
b) flapping of wings

(c) twisting of feathers
(d) shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades
B
6. The mammal which lays eggs is
(a)Bat
(b) Squirrel
(c)Kangaroo
(d) DuckbilledPlatypus
D
7. Hormones are normally absent in
(a) rat
(b) monkey
(c) bacteria
(d) cat
C
8. The blood sucking organisms are
(a)Hookworms
(b) Earthworms
(c)Leeches
(d) Pin worms
C
9. ‘The blue coloured blood of this marine creature is used to test safety of drugs. It is found
abundantly along Orissa coast’.
The given description fits
(a)Scorpion
(b) Sepia
(c)Cattle fish
(d) Horse shoe crab
D
10.From which stage of silkmoth is silk obtained?
(a)Caterpillar
(b) Pupa
(c)Cocoon
(d) Adult
C
11. The gestation period of cows is
(a)150 days
(b) 280 days
(c)300 days
(d) 365 days
B
12. 50. Pick out the wrong pair
Animal Gestation period
(a) Monkey —300 days
(Li)Elephant —600 days
(c)Cow — 280 days
(d)Pig — 68 days
A
13.Taenia solium (Tape worm) lives as a parasite in(a)pig
(b) abdomen of man
(c)intestine of man
d) liver of man
C
14. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
(a)Bat
(b) Scaly ant -eater
(c)Whale
(d) Spiny ant -eater
D
15. The human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) is a living entity because it can
(a) move from one cell to another
(b) undergo autoreproduction
(c) disturb host cell respiration
(d) excrete in human sperm

Class 10 results 2011

CBSE ADDA
 Class X Exam Results 2011  -  
 Announced on 31st May 2011
( Chennai region )Results by IVRS and SMS   |   School Wise Results
 Class X Exam Results 2011  -   Announced on 31st May 2011
    ( Delhi region )
                 Results by IVRS and SMS   |   School Wise Results

Monday, May 30, 2011

ncert solution metal and non metal for class 10


Page 40 
Question 1:
Give an example of a metal which
(i) is a liquid at room temperature.
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
(iii) is the best conductor of heat.
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
(i) Metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature  Mercury
(ii) Metal that can be easily cut with a knife  Sodium
(iii) Metal that is the best conductor of heat  Silver
(iv) Metals that are poor conductors of heat  Mercury and lead
Question 2:
Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.
Malleable: Substances that can be beaten into thin sheets are called malleable. For example, most of the metals are malleable.
Ductile: Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are called ductile. For example, most of the metals are ductile.
Question 1:
Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Sodium and potassium are very reactive metals and and combine explosively with air as well as water. Hence, they catch fire if kept in open. Therefore, to prevent accidental fires and accidents, sodium is stored immersed in kerosene oil.
Question 2:
Write equations for the reactions of
(i) iron with steam
(ii) calcium and potassium with water
Question 3:
Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows.
Metal
Iron (II) sulphate
Cooper (II) sulphate
Zinc sulphate
Silver nitrate
A.
No reaction
Displacement


B.
Displacement

No reaction

C.
No reaction
No reaction
No reaction
Displacement
D.
No reaction
No reaction
No reaction
No reaction
Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?
(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
Explanation
A + FeSO4  No reaction, i.e., A is less reactive than iron
A + CuSO4  Displacement, i.e., A is more reactive than copper
B + FeSO4  Displacement, i.e., B is more reactive than iron
B + ZnSO4  No reaction, i.e., B is less reactive than zinc
C + FeSO4  No reaction, i.e., C is less reactive than iron
C + CuSO4  No reaction, i.e., C is less reactive than copper
C + ZnSO4  No reaction, i.e., C is less reactive than zinc
C + AgNO3  Displacement, i.e., C is more reactive than silver
D + FeSO4/CuSO4/ZnSO4/AgNO3  No reaction, i.e., D is less reactive than iron, copper, zinc, and silver
From the above equations, we obtain:
(i) B is the most reactive metal.
(ii) If B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate, then it would displace copper.
B + CuSO4  Displacement
(iii) The arrangement of the metals in the order of decreasing reactivity is:
B > A > C > D

Question 4:
Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Hydrogen gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal.
When iron reacts with dilute H2SO4, iron (II) sulphate with the evolution of hydrogen gas is formed.
Question 5:
What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Zinc is more reactive than iron. Therefore, if zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate, then it would displace iron from the solution.

Question 1:
(i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii) What are the ions present in these compounds?
(i) The representation of elements with valence electrons as dots around the elements is referred to as electron-dot structure for elements.
(ii)
(iii) The ions present in Na2O are Na+ and O2− ions and in MgO are Mg2+ and O2− ions.
Question 2:

ctet result and sample paper(Child Pedagogy MCQ)

Child development and Pedagogy (MCQ)
1. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining
(a) Environmental influences on development.
(b) Biological influences on development.
(c) Cognitive development.
(d) Affective processes in development.
2. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to
the stimulus response learning theory, except
(a) Pavilov (b) J B Waston
(c) Hull (d) Gesell
3. The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual's responsiveness to the
environment is known as
(a) Canalization.
(b) Discontinuity.
(c) Differentiation.
(d) Range of reaction.
4. In order to develop the spirit of labour in students
(a) The teacher himself should indulge in labour
(b) The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour
(c) Students should be given opportunities to do labour from time to time
(d) Students should be given examples of laboring people
5. A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward
family/background from the cultural viewpoint. You will
(a) Keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward
background from the cultural viewpoint
(b) Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the
child
(c) Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him,
keeping his special needs in view
(d) Advise him to take up vocational education
6. All of the following can be signs that a child is gifted, except
(a) Early development of a sense of time
(b) Interest in encyclopaedias and dictionaries

(c) Uneasy relationships with peers.
(d) Easy retention of facts
7. If heredity is an important determinant of a specific behaviour, what prediction can we
make about expression of the behaviour in identical twins reared apart compared to its
expression in fraternal twins reared apart?
(a) Fraternal twins will express the behaviour more similarly than identical twins.
(b) There will be little similarity in the expression of the behaviour in either set of
twins.
(c) Identical twins will express the behaviour more similarly than fraternal twins.
(d) The behaviour will be expressed as similarly by identical twins as it is by
fraternal twins.
8. Frobel’s most important contribution to education was his development of the
(a) Vocational school (b) Public high school
(c) Kindergarten (d) Latin School
9. Of the following, the main purpose of state certification of teachers is to
(a) Monitor the quality of teacher training institutions
(b) Provide for a uniform standard of entry-level teacher competency throughout
the state
(c) Exclude from the profession those not trained in pedagogy
(d) Exclude from the profession those who are mentally unhealthy
10. The key difference between evolutionary and cultural change is that evolutionary
change alters __________ whereas cultural change alters ____________.
(a) Reproduction; environment (b) Heredity; environment
(c) Environment; behavior (d) Development; learning
ANSWERS
1. (a)             2. (d)          3. (d)          4. (c)          5. (c)          6. (c)         7. (c)        8. (c)
9. (b)            10. (b)

CTET Results 2011

CBSE CTET 2011 Exam, Test, Date, Syllabus, Notification, Notice, Patten, Results, Central Teacher Eligibility Test 2011.


Welcome to CBSE CTET 2011 Section. Here you will find CBSE CTET 2011 Exam, Test, Date, Syllabus, Notification, Patten, Structure, Results, Central Teacher Eligibility Test 2011.

Central Board of Secondary Education, Delhi - CBSE

announces

Central Teacher Eligibility Test - CTET 2011

CBSE conduct Central Teacher Eligibility Test - CTET for appointment of as a teacher in classes I to VIII.

Cost of CTET 2011 Information Bulletin and Application form:-

i) For General / OBC candidates Rs. 500/-

ii) For SC/ST/ Differently abled candidates Rs. 250/-

CTET 2011 Important Dates / Notification:-

Sale of CTET information bulleting and application form:- 20.04.2011 to 15.05.2011

Last Date of for submission of application form :- 15.05.2011 (online & offline both)

Date form whih candidates can apply online:- 08 .04.2011

DATE OF EXAMINATION:- 26.06.2011

PAPER:-
 I

TIMING:- 09.30 TO 11.00 HOURS

DURATION:-
 1.30 HOURS

DATE OF EXAMINATION:-
 26.06.2011

PAPER:- II

TIMING:- 
12.30 TO 14.00 HOURS

DURATION:-1.30 HOURS

CTET 2011 Eligibility:-


Minimum Qualifications for Classes I-V:

Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and passed or appearing in final 2 – year Diploma in Elementary Education (or its equivalent)

OR

Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 45% marks and passed or appearing in final 2 – year Diploma in Elementary Education (or its equivalent), in accordance with the NCTE (Recognition Norms and Procedure), Regulations 2002

OR

Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and passed or appearing in final 4-year Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.)

OR

Senior Secondary (or its equivalent) with at least 50% marks and passed or appearing in final 2 – year Diploma in Education (Special Education)*

Note: (i) Relaxation of 5% in minimum qualifying marks at BA/B.Sc./Senior Secondary level is admissible for SC/ST/

Differently abled Candidates.

(ii) For this year only, a candidate with BA/B.Sc. with at least 50% marks and B.Ed qualification shall also be eligible for test for classes I to V, provided he/she undergoes, after appointment, an NCTE recognized 6-month special program in

Elementary Education.

Minimum Qualifications for Classes VI-VIII:

CTET-2011 Self Study Material | Books


After so much research I came across books by ARIHANT publication for the self preparation of the EXAM. These books cost around Rs. 200 and are available at good book stores. This book covers all the subjects coming in the exam and contains large number of solved and unsolved questions for practice.
This book is available in both English and Hindi Medium. Hope you would find it useful.

Sunday, May 29, 2011

Oxidation - Reduction Reactions


Oxidation - Reduction Reactions
"Oxidation is a reaction in which oxygen is added or hydrogen is removed from a substance."
Addition of Oxygen

Oxygen adds on to magnesium to become magnesium oxide.
2Mg + O2 ----> 2MgO

Removal of Hydrogen
Hydrogen is removed from hydroiodic acid to liberate free iodine.
2HI -----> 2H2        +      I2
"Reduction is a reaction in which oxygen is removed from a substance or hydrogen is added to a substance."
Removal of Oxygen
Oxygen is removed from copper oxide to form copper metal.

CuO      +              CO ---------> Cu                     +  CO2
Black                                          Reddish brown

Addition of Hydrogen

Hydrogen adds to chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas.
H2 + Cl2 -------> 2 HCl

Oxidation and reduction reactions if occur simultaneously we call these reactions as "redox" reactions.
Example of Redox Reaction
Mg + H2SO4   ----------> MgSO4  + H2

The Effects of Oxidation Reactions
(a)Corrosion:-
Many metals are chemically active elements and get easily affected by substances like moisture, air, acids, etc. Example-Iron articles that are shiny when new, but get coated with a reddish brown powder when left for some time. This process is commonly known as rusting of iron. Rusting eventually causes structural weakness and disintegration of the metal.
When a metal is attacked by substances around it, it is said to corrode and this process is called corrosion. Corrosion causes deterioration of essential properties in a material.

What happens to copper vessels or artifacts when exposed to air and water? 

They slowly get tarnished by acquiring a thin green oxide layer in moist air.  The heaviest metal lead also tarnishes in moist weather. The black coating on silver and the green coating on copper are examples of corrosion in which the oxides formed strongly bond to the surface of the metal, preventing the surface from further exposure to oxygen and consequently slowing down corrosion.

Billions of rupees are lost each year because of corrosion and a huge amount of money is spent in prevention of corrosion and tarnishing of metals. Corrosion causes damage to car bodies, buildings, bridges, iron railings, underground water and sewage pipes, ships and all objects made of metals. Much of this loss is due to the corrosion of iron and steel, although many other metals may corrode as well.

Rancidity : If food materials left for a long time unpleasant change in the flavor and odour of a food is called rancidity. The most important cause of rancidity is the deterioration in fats and fatty foods because of oxidation process. When an oxygen atom replace hydrogen atom in the fatty acid molecule it destabilizes the molecule. Factors which accelerate fat oxidation include, salt, light, water, bacteria, moulds trace metals (iron, zinc, etc.).

Usually substances which retard fat oxidation or rancidity are called antioxidants (such as BHT, BHA, vitamin E, and vitamin C, and spices such as sage and rosemary). These are added to foods containing fats and oil to prevent such spoiling. Keeping food in air tight containers or air tight wrapping also helps to slow down oxidation.

More post describing redox reaction

The Effects of Oxidation Reactions : Many metals are chemically active elements and get easily affected by substances like moisture, air, acids, etc. Example-Iron articles that are shiny when new, but get coated with a reddish brown powder when left for some time. This process is commonly known as rusting of iron. Rusting eventually causes structural weakness and disintegration of the metal.
When a metal is attacked by substances around it, it is said to corrode and this process is called corrosion. Corrosion causes deterioration of essential properties in a material..............Read more

In our daily life we come across phenomena like fading of the colours of the clothes, burning of combustible substances like cooking gas, wood and coal, .................................... Read more  
science class 10 oxidation, reduction and redox chemical reaction

Chemistry x - OXIDATION AND REDUCTION : Oxidation: A chemical reaction which involves addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or loss of electron(s) is called as oxidation.
2Mg + O2 →2MgO (addition of oxygen)
H2S + Br2 → 2HBr + S (removal of hydrogen)
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e- (loss of electron)           ..........................................................,,,,,,,,,Read more

Saturday, May 28, 2011

Objective question of general science


 Objective question in the form of general science for upcomming exams.
SOLVED OBJECTIVE QUESTION IN THE FORM OF GENERAL SCIENCE FOR UPCOMMING EXAMS. 

1. The respiration is carried on by 
(A) Kidneys 
(B) Brain 
(C) Intestine 
(D) Lungs 
Ans (D) 
2. Which is the outer protective cover of the body? 
(A) Skeleton 
(B) Hair 
(C) Skin 
(D) None of these 
Ans (C) 
3. Which collects the blood from the organs? 
(A) Arteries 
(B) Veins 
(C) Lungs 
(D) Nerves 
Ans (B) 
4. Which removes waste materials from the body? 
(A) Kidneys 
(B) Lungs 
(C) Heart 
(D) Brain 
Ans (A) 
5. Which of the following is well developed and functional in grazing animals? 
(A) Appendix 
(B) Liver 
(C) Duodenum 
(D) Rectum 
Ans (A) 
6. How many teeth will the children have? 
(A) 10 
(B) 15 
(C) 28 
(D) 20 
Ans (D) 
7. What is inner lining of the alimentary canal called ? 
(A) oesophagus 
(B) Mucous membrance 
(C) Muscle 
(D) Muscular 
Ans (B) 
8. Which of the following is not a part of the alimentary canal? 
(A) Mouth 
(B) Stomach 
(C) Small intestine 
(D) lungs 
Ans (D) 
9. Liver and pancreas are the ________ glands. 
(A) blood clear 
(B) digestive 
(C) breathing 
(D) none of these 
Ans (B) 
10. _________ is a sticky substance in saliva and provides easy movement for food. 
(A) Insulin 
(B) Amylase 
(C) Mucin 
(D) none of these 
Ans (C) 
11. Nose opens at the uuper end of _____ through a pair of internal nostrils. 
(A) Larnyx 
(B) Trachea 
(C) Pharnyx 
(D) none of these 
Ans (C) 
12. Which of the following is a long tube and wind pipe? 
(A) Bronchi 
(B) Nasal canal 
(C) Pharnyx 
(D) Trachea 
Ans (D) 
13. How many lungs are present in the human body? 
(A) 1 
(B) 2 
(C) 3 
(D) none of these 
Ans (B) 
14. The lungs are covered by two membrances called as _______ 
(A) Veins 
(B) Air sacs 
(C) pleura 
(D) none of these 
Ans (C) 
15. The normal temperature of a human body is _____ 
(A) 98.4ºC 
(B) 98.4ºF 
(C) 99.0ºC 
(D) 99.0ºF 
Ans (B) 
16. What is the temperature of boiling water? 
(A) 100ºC 
(B) 32ºC 
(C) 180ºF 
(D) 32ºF 
Ans (A) 
17. Units which can be expressed in terms of two or more fundamental Units of mass or called____ units 
(A) Derived 
(B) defined 
(C) undefined 
(D) underived 
Ans (A) 
18. The mean distance of sun from the earth is called 
(A) Astronomical units 
(B) Lightyear 
(C) Astrological units 
(D) Angstroms 
Ans (A) 
19. One nano metre = 
(A) 10Aº 
(B) 11Aº 
(C) 12Aº 
(D) 10.5Aº 
Ans (A) 
20. Which of the following is known as acqua gold 
(A) Sulphuric acid 
(B) Nitric Acid 
(C) Hydrochloric Acid 
(D) Ammonia WRONG 3 2 
21. The force is the product of _____ 
(A) velocity and acceleration 
(B) the speed and acceleration 
(C) mass and speed 
(D) mass and acceleration 
Ans (D) 
22. Root part is represented in a mature emryo by 
(A) plumule 
(B) radicle 
(C) chalaza 
(D) cotyledons 
Ans (B) 
23. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of 
(A) phosphorus 
(B) potassium 
(C) fatti acid 
(D) fluorine 
Ans (D) 
24. Excess of fat in the body is stored in 
(A) Adipose tissue 
(B) Acrosome 
(C) Connective tissue 
(D) Bone marrow 
Ans (A) 
25. Disease caused by HIV virus is 
(A) mumps 
(B) plague 
(C) AIDS 
(D) tuberculosis 
Ans (C)